ATMA Sample Test

Time: 105 Minutes
Questions: 100 (Q.1-100)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

You will find below 100 Questions as samples to acquaint yourself with the nature of the AIMS Test for Management Admissions (ATMA). These questions are drawn from different sources including previous tests held since February 2000. ATMA contains 170 Questions spread over Six Questions – Analytical Reasoning Skills, Quantitative Skills, and Verbal Skills. Each section is timed separately - 30 minutes each. Total time for the test is 3 hours. Please refer to Para 6.1 in this Bulletin once again for details.

Please note that in the actual test, the Six sections may not appear in the same order as stated above. Again, the test may or may not contain the types of questions given in the sample test. The Test could also include other types of questions that are not shown in the sample test.

For each question, choose the best answer from the alternatives numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4), and then darken the oval corresponding to the question in the answer sheet as specified in paras 7.1 and 7.2 of this Bulletin.
Please note that ATMA has been accepted by the Ministry of HRD, Government of India and AICTE as one of the five tests for admissions to the MBA and similar programmes at the postgraduate level by AICTE – recognized Institutes.

ATMA scores sent to the Institutes by the AIMS office at Hyderabad (India) are only valid scores of any candidate. AIMS will not be responsible, in any way, if any Institute accepts ATMA scores, not sent directly by the AIMS Office, but sent by a candidate or by any other persons not authorized by AIMS.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

The Test contains Questions on three abilities or skills. These are:

• Analytical Reasoning Skills
  
• Quantitative Skills
  
• Verbal Skills

Analytical Reasoning Skills

The Questions on Analytical Skills examine the logical thinking abilities of a candidate. Do remember that a particular Question is less important than the reasoning task you are asked to perform. No specialized knowledge of any particular field is required for answering the questions, and no knowledge of the terminology and conventions of formal logic is presumed.

In the Questions on Analytical Skills you need to analyse the situations on which each Question is based and then select the answer choice that is most appropriate response to the question.
Each set of Questions or group of Questions is based on a passage or set of conditions. In answering some of the Questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. For each Question, select the best answer from the choices given, Darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet.

Quantitative Skills

The ATMA Quantitative Skills Questions measure your ability to reason Quantitatively, solve Quantitative problems, and interpret graphic data.

Types of multiple – choice Questions include:

1. Problem-Solving
   
2. Data Sufficiency

Problem – Solving and Data Sufficiency Questions require basic knowledge of:

1. Arithmetic
   
2. Elementary algebra
   
3. Commonly known concepts of Geometry

For each Question in Quantitative Skills sections, select the correct or the best of the answer choices numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) and darken the oval corresponding to your choice in the answer sheet.
Number: All numbers are real numbers.
Figures: Position of points, angles, regions, etc., can be assumed to be positive.
Lines drawn as straight can be assumed to be straight.
Figures that accompany questions are intended to provide information useful in answering the questions.

However, unless it is stated, a specific figure is not drawn to scale; the diagrams and figures are drawn as accurately as possible; you should solve these problems NOT by estimating sizes by sight or by measurement, but using your knowledge of mathematics.

Verbal Skills

The ATMA Verbal Skills sections measure your ability to read and comprehend written material in English language, to reason and evaluate arguments, and to correct written material to conform standard written English. Because the Verbal sections include reading sections from different context areas, you may be generally familiar with some of the material, however, neither the written passages nor the questions assume detailed knowledge of the topics discussed.

Types of Multiple Choice questions used in Verbal sections include:

1. Reading comprehension
   
2. Sentence Correction
   
3. Word meaning – antonyms, synonyms, analogies - your ability to recognize relationships among words and concepts, parallel relationships, etc.
   
4. Sentence completions – your ability to recognize words or phrases that both logically and stylistically complete the meaning of a sentence.

In brief, the questions in Verbal Skills sections test your recognition of correct grammatical usage, vocabulary, and familiarities with words, your understanding and comprehension of the language (English) while reading and your ability to write clearly and briefly.

Section I
Verbal Skills

No. of Questions: 16 (Questions 1 – 16) Time: 18 Minutes Directions for Questions 1 – 5 Answer the Questions after reading the following passage. Base your answer on the information that is either stated or implied in the passage. Choose the best answer and darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Passage A good monsoon has improved the economic outlook. With the industrial growth rising from Last year’s 4.5 percent to 5.7 percent in June, there is cause to cheer. The manufacturing sector in particular has been performing well, especially in the passenger car segment along with non – cotton textiles, steel and transport equipment. Electricity generation is also up. The farm sector is expected to grow 7.5 percent generating higher incomes in rural households and adding momentum to the demand for industrial goods. The other positive signs are the huge stocks of good grains and foreign exchange reserves. Exports, too, are growing at a double digit rate and on the balance of payments side, a trade surplus has accrued for the second time. Inflation has remained low. The only problem is the widening fiscal deficit and government’s borrowing pattern. A higher deficit will effect the scope of public investment. In the first quarter of 2003 – 2004, the centre and state governments together borrowed Rs. 73,218 crore from the domestic market as compared to Rs. 66,702 crore during same period last year. The centre alone has already borrowed more in the first quarter (April – June) this fiscal than it did over the first half of the last year. Such heavy borrowing could be attributed to the rather low revenue collection so far as well as the large loan repayments scheduled for July – August this year. When government borrows so heavily, it has less money to spend on crucial growth promoting areas and the social sector. The private sector, too, has been reluctant to invest in the expansion of productive capacity and has parked its cash kitty in government bonds and mutual funds. Better demand prospect on account of a favourable monsoon are likely to persuade them to invest more. An increase in both public and private investment will be necessary to bring about a GDP growth of 8 percent as a higher industrial growth alone will not be sufficient. (Source: A lead article from a national daily, August, 2003) Questions 1 – 5 are based on the above passage Q1 According to the author of the passage, which of the following best states the central point of the passage? I.The government’s heavy borrowing from the market will prevent the central government to invest in crucial growth – promoting areas and the social sector. II. A higher industrial growth alone will not be sufficient to bring about a GDP growth of 8 percent, an increase in both public and private investment will be necessary. III. A good monsoon has improved the economic outlook for 2003 – 04. (1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) I, II and III Q2 According to the passage, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE? (1) The expected growth in the farm sector due to a good monsoon this year will generate higher incomes in rural households and is likely to add momentum to the demand for industrial goods. (2) Despite the fact that exports are growing, however, since the rupee has been rising against the American Dollar, the expected growth in exports may be slowed down at the end of this fiscal. (3) The investments by the private sector in government bonds and mutual funds have improved the capital market. (4) None of the above. Q3 According to the passage, which of the following is/are TRUE? I. Rather low revenue collection and large loan repayments scheduled in July – August this financial year could be attributed as the cause of the centre’s heavy borrowing from the market. II. The positive signs of the economy are improved performance of the manufacturing sector especially in the passenger car segment, non – cotton textiles, steel and transport equipment. III. A trade surplus and inflation remaining low are also to be positive sign of the economy in this fiscal. (1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) I, II and III Q4 Which of the following statement(s) is/are the main thrust of the author’s argument in the passage? I.The scope of public investment will be affected to widening fiscal deficit. II.The centre and the state governments together borrowed from the domestic market more than 10 percent in the first Quarter of 2003 – 2004 as compared to the same period last year. III.Better demand prospects on account of a favourable monsoon are likely to persuade the private sector to invest more. (1)I only (2)II only (3)III only (4)I, II and III Q5 Accepting the line of argument as stated in the passage as valid, which of the following statement(s) WEAKEN(s) the conclusion? I. Indian economy, since globalisation, has been closely linked with the world economy and as such not solely dependent on domestic demand. II. Foreign direct investment has been declined in this fiscal as a proportion of the GDP. III. The uncertainty in the international and domestic business climate is the major factor for the private sector not to invest in a major way. IV. To reach a higher GDP growth, investment in industrial sector alone would not be sufficient, it would need several important policy measures by the Government of India. (1) I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) I, II and III Directions for Questions 6 – 8 These questions test your ability to recognize correct and effective expression. Follow the requirements of standard written English Grammar, choice of words and sentence construction. In each question below, either part or all of the sentence is underlined. The sentence is followed by four ways of writing the underling parts. Choose the answer which results in the clearest, most exact sentence. The answer choice (1) repeats the original; the other answer choices numbered (2), (3) and (4) vary. If you think that the original phrasing is best, select that choice. Choose the best or the correct one for the question. Darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Q6 Because of enemy’s new ship is the quietest and it is therefore the most elusive submarine, it is being increasingly viewed by the Indian Navy as a threat to security. and it is therefore the most elusive submarine, it is being increasingly viewed and therefore it is the most elusive submarine, there is an increasing view. and therefore the most elusive submarine, it is being increasingly viewed. therefore being the most elusive of submarines, it is increasingly viewed. Q7 A large rise in the number of housing starts in the coming year (2004 – 2005) due to decrease in the interest rate on housing loans by almost all Banks should boost new construction of houses by several million rupees, making the construction industry’s economic health much more robust than five years ago. making the construction industry’s economic health much more robust than five years ago. to make the construction industry’s economic health much more robust than five years ago. making the construction industry’s economic health much more robust than it was five years ago. in making the construction in industry’s economic health much more robust than it was five years ago. Q8 The standard explanations of all administration when incidents of these nature like the violence in Assam occurs is that they didn’t have adequate force at their disposal to be dealt in the situation. The standard explanations of all administration when incidents of these nature like the violence in Assam occurs is that they didn’t have adequate force at their disposal to be dealt in the situation. The standard explanation of all administration when incident of this nature like the violence in Assam occurs is that they didn’t have adequate force at their disposal to be dealt with in the situation. The standard explanation of all administration when incident of this nature like the violence in Assam, occurs is that they didn’t have adequate force at their disposal to be dealt with in situation. The standard explanation of all administrations when incidents of this nature, like the violence in Assam, occurs is that they didn’t have adequate force at their disposal to deal with the situation. Directions for Questions 9 – 11 Each sentence that follows has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Following the sentence are four words or set of words. Choose the word or set of words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Q9 Prudery actually draws attention to the vice it is suppose to…………. the very act that forbids speech or prohibits sight ………. what is hidden. condemn…….distort repress……..dramatizes divulge…….conceal obviate…….fosters Q10 Compared mathematically to smoking and driving, almost everything else seems relatively risk free……….almost nothing seems worth regulating. (1) so (2) yet (3) since (4) even though Q11 While some see in practical jokes a wish for mastery in miniature over a world that seems very………, others believe that jokes’ purpose is to disrupt, by reducing all transactions to……… (1) untruly…….chaos (2) harmonious……….dissonance (3) turbulent……….uniformity (4) dubious……….confusion Directions for Questions 12 – 14 In each of the following questions, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by four numbered pairs of words or phrases. Select the numbered pair that best express a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair and darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Q12 LUMBER : GRACE : : (1) insinuate : subtley (2) relent : energy (3) waver : resolution (4) castigate : justice Q13 CAUSTIC : EAT AWAY : : (1) explosive : destroy (2) regent : blind (3) desiccant : dry (4) synthesis : substitute Q14 . If b < 3b =" 0,">MUST BE TRUE? (1) x > -3 (2) x <> (3) ) x <> (4) x > 3 Directions for Questions 15 – 16 Each question below consists of a word printed in CAPITAL LETTERS, followed by four numbered words or phrases. Choose the number word or phrase that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word or phrase in capital letter. Since some of the Questions require you to distinguish fine shades of meanings, be sure to consider all the choices before deciding which one is the best.

Q15 ASPERITY : (1) sureness of judgement (2) failure of imagination (3) ) mildness of temper (4) brevity of speech

Q16 DESULTORY (1) strictly methodical (2) cheerfully accepted (3) lightly considered (4) strongly highlighted

Section II
Analytical Reasoning

No. of Questions 17 (Questions 17 – 33) Time : 17 Minutes For each question, select the best answer from the choices given. Darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Q. 17 – 18 Half of the subjects in an experiment - the experimental group - consumed large quantities of a popular artificial sweetener. Afterwards, this group showed lower cognitive abilities than did the other half of the subjects - the control group – who did not consume the sweetener. The detrimental effects were attributed to an amino acid that is one of the sweetener’s principal components. Q17 sweetener was responsible for the experimental results?Which of the following, if true, would best support the conclusion that some ingredients of the (1) The Quality of sweetener consumed by the individuals in the experimental group is considered to be safe by medical authorities. (2) The amino acid referred to in the conclusion is a component of all proteins, some of which must be consumed for adequate nutrition. (3) Most consumers of the sweetener do not consume as much of as the experimental group members did. (4) The two groups of subjects were evenly matched with regard to cognitive abilities prior to the experiments. Q18 Which of the following, if true, would best help explain how the sweetner might produce the observed effects? (1) A high level of amino acid in the blood inhibits the synthesis of a substance required for normal brain functioning. (2) Because of the sweetner being used primarily as a food additive, adverse reactions to it are rarely noticed by consumers. (3) Subjects in the experiments did not know whether they were consuming the sweetner or a harmless substance. (4) The amino acid that is a constituent of the sweetener is also sold separately as a dietary supplement.

Q19 Editorial. Regulations recently imposed by the Government of Katanga call for unprecedental reduction in the amounts of pollutants, manufactures are allowed to discharge into environment. It will take costly new pollution control equipment requiring expensive maintenance to comply with these regulations. Resultant price increases. For Katangan manufactured goods will lead to the loss of some export markets. Clearly, therefore, annual exports of Katangan manufactured goods will in future occur at diminishing levels.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously WEAKENS the arguments in the editorial? (1) By international standards, the Levels of pollutants currently emitted by some of Katanga’s manufacturing plants are not considered excessive. (2) Savings form utilizing the chemicals captured by the pollution control equipment will remain far below the cost of maintaining the equipment. (3) The proposed regulations include a schedule of fines for non-compliance that escalate steeply in cases of repeated non-compliance (4) The need to comply with the new regulations will stimulate the development within Katanga of new pollution control equipment for which a strong worldwide demand is likely to emerge.

Q20 Automobile Dealer’s Advertisement The Highway Traffic Safety Institute reports that the XL1000 has the fewest injuries per accident of any car in its class. This shows that the XL1000 is one of the safest cars available today.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously WEAKENS the argument in the advertisement? (1) The Highway Traffic Safety Institute issues reports only once in a year. (2) The difference between the number of injuries per accident for XL1000 and that of other cars in its class is Quite pronounced (3) In recent years many more XL1000s have been sold than have any other kind of cars in its class. (4) Cars in the class to which the XL1000 belongs are more likely to be involved in accidents than are other types of cars.

Q21 Choloroflurocarbons (CFCs) pose known dangers to public health. Only when the United States government imposes a specific ban on the industrial use of CFCs cost – effective and thus reduce public health hazards.

Which of the following is an assumption on which the assertion made above is based? (1) The alternative to CFCs currently available are not widely used because they are not familiar to sufficient number of industry scientists. (2) The alternatives to CFCs are less hazardous to public health than are CFCs. (3) The use of CFCs can result in employment time lost because of illness. (4) CFCs are currently the most serious public health hazard engendered by the industry in the United States.

Q22 The large amount of Carbon Dioxide (CO2) now being released into the atmosphere burning fossil fuel will not, in fact, result in green house effects-------- an increase in average global temperatures. Since plants use CO2 in large quantities if the supply is increased, they are able to grow larger and multiply more rigorously, and atmospheric CO2 concentrations will eventually become stable.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously WEAKENS the conclusion that a green house effect will not result from current release of large amounts of CO2 into the atmosphere? (1) When plant decays, they produce methane, another gas that can have a marked green house effect. (2) The expected rise in average global temperatures, has not yet been observed (3) Since the beginning of the Industrial Revolution (1790) increased atmospheric concentrations of CO2 have resulted in agricultural productivity. (4) Ocean waters absorb CO2 at a greater rate when the atmospheric concentration of CO2 is higher.

Questions 23 – 28 are based on the following: The art director of an advertising company is preparing a sales brochure for a boat manufacturing company. To represent her client’s line of products, she wants a separate full page colour advertisement in the brochure for each of the following five types of boats: Kayak, Motor Boat, Pedal Boat, Raft and Sail Boat. Thus, there will be exactly five printed pages, numbered consecutively one through five, it the brochure. Because, she also wants to show the range of colours that manufacturer uses, one of the boats pictured must be green, one must be orange, one must be tan, one must be white, and one must be yellow. In designing the brochure, she has made the following decisions: The motorboat will be advertised on a lower numbered page than the pedal boat. The sailboat will be advertised on a lower page then Kayak. The white boat will be advertised on a lower numbered page than the yellow boat. The orange boat will be advertised on page three. The pedal boat advertised will be tan. Q23 Any of the boats could be advertised on Page 3 EXCEPT the (1). Pedal Boat (2). Raft (3). Sail Boat (4).Motor Boat Q24 Which of the following could be the colours of the boats advertised on Page 1 through Page 5, respectively? (1) White, Tan, Orange, Green, Yellow (2) Green, Orange, White, Yellow, Tan (3)Tan, Yellow, Orange, Green, White (4) Orange, Yellow, White, Green, Tan Q25 If the Kayak is Green, the boat advertised on page 1 must be? (1) White (2) Green (3) Yellow (4) Orange Q26 If kayak is advertised on a lower numbered page than the orange boat, which of the following must be true? (1) The Kayak is advertised on Page – 1 The Pedal Boat is advertised on Page – 5 The Raft is advertised on Page – 3 The Sail Boat is advertised on Page - 1 Q27 If the Motor boat is green and is advertised on page 4, which of the following MUST BE TRUE? (1) The Raft is advertised on page – 3 (2) The Sail boat is advertised on page –1 (3) The Tan boat is advertised on page – 2 (4) The White boat is advertised on page – 1 Q28 If the Sailboat is advertised on page 2, and the green boat is advertised on page 5, the Sailboat must be? (1) Orange (2) Green (3) Yellow (4) White Directions for Questions 29 – 32: For each Question, two or three, statements are given. These statements are marked (A), (B), and/or (C), as the case may be, followed by two conclusions marked (I) and (II) that can be logically drawn from two or three statements. Even if the statements vary from well known facts assume them to be true. Choose the best alternative from the answer choices as given below and darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Q29 (A) No things derived from sensory impressions are items of knowledge of substance itself. (B) All items of knowledge are things derived from sensory impressions. Conclusion(s): (I) Things not derived from sensory impressions are not items of knowledge. (II) Items of knowledge of substance itself are derived from sensory impressions. Which of the statement(s) is/are the conclusion(s)? (1) I only (2) II only (3)Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II Q30 Statements: (A) Babies are illogical. (B) Nobody is despised who can manage a crocodile (C) Illogical persons are despised (From Lewis Carrol) Conclusion (s): (I) Therefore babies cannot manage crocodiles. (II) All persons who are not despised can manage a crocodile. Which statement(s) is/are the conclusion(s)? (1) I only (2) II only (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II Q31 Statements: (A) Every one who is sane can do logic. (B) No lunatics are fit to serve on a jury. (C) None of your sons can do Logic. Conclusion (s): I. All persons who serve on a jury can do logic. II. No sons of yours are persons fit to serve on a jury. Which of the Statement(s) is/are the conclusion(s)? (1)I only (2) II only (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II Q32 Statements: (A) All times when he is sick are times when he complains. (B) This time is not a time when he is sick. Conclusion: I. He is a person who does not complain if he were not sick. II. No times when he is not sick are times when he complains. Which of the statement(s) is/are conclusion(s)? (1)I only (2) II only (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II Q33 Meteorite explosions in the Earth’s atmosphere as large as the one that destroyed forests in Siberia, with approximately the force of twelve – megaton nuclear blast, occur once a century. The response of highly automated systems controlled by complex computer programmes to unexpected circumstances is unpredictable. Which of the following conclusions can most properly be drawn, if the statements above are true, about a highly automated nuclear – missile defense system controlled by a complex computer programme? (1) The system would be destroyed if an explosion of a large meteorite occurred in the Earth’s atmosphere. (2) Whether the system would respond inappropriately to the explosion of a large meteorite would depend on the location of the blast. (3) It would be impossible for the system to distinguish the explosion of a large meteorite from the explosion of a nuclear weapon. (4) It is not certain what the system’s response to the explosion of a large meteorite would be, if its designers did not plan for such a contingency.

Section III
Quantitative Skills

No. of Questions: 17 (Questions 34 – 50) Time: 17 Minutes

Directions for Questions 34 – 37: Choose the correct answer from the answer choices and then darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet.

Q34 If b < 3b =" 0,">MUST BE TRUE? (1) x > -3 (2) x <> (3) x <> (4) x > 3 Q35 If m is an integer such that (-2) 2m = (2) 9-m, then m = (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Q36 One hour after Harry Potter started from X to Y, a distance of 45 kms, J.K.Rowling started walking along the same road from Y to X. If Potter’s walking rate was 3kms/hour and Rowling’s was 4kms/hour, how many kms had Rowling walked when they met? (1) 24 (2) 42 (3) 23 (4) 22 Q37 37. If a, b and c are consecutive integers and a <>MUST BE TRUE? I. c-a = 2. II. abc is an even integer. III. a – b – c is an integer. 3 (1) I Only (2) II Only (3) III only (4) I, II and III Q38 If O ≤ x ≤ 4 and y <> (1) 0 (2)) –2 (3) 24 (4)48 Q39 The shaded portion of the rectangular plot shown above represents a flowerbed. If the area of the bed is 24 sq.yds and x = y + 2, z equals (1) 2√ 13 (2)) 6 (3) 10 (4)None of these Q40 If the Quotient a/b is positive, which of the following MUST BE TRUE? I. a > 0 and b > 0 II. ab > 0 III. a – b > 0 (1) I only (2)) II only (3) III only (4)I, II and III Questions 41 – 42 refer to the following definition: For any positive integer n, n > 1, the “Length” of n is the number of positive primes (not necessarily distinct) whose product is n. For example, the length of 50 is 3 since 50 = (2) (5) (5) Q41 Which of the following integers has length 3 (1) 3 (2)) 15 (3) 60 (4)105 Q42 What is the greatest possible length of a positive integer less than 1000? (1) 9 (2)) 10 (3) 8 (4) 7 Q43 Of 30 applicants for a job, 14 had at least 4 years of experience, 18 had degrees, and 3 had less than 4 years of experience and did not have a degree. How many of the applicants had at least 4 years experience and a degree? (1) 14 (2)) 9 (3) 5 (4)16 Directions for Questions 44 – 48: In each of the problem, a Question is followed by two statements marked (A) and (B) containing certain data pertaining to the problem. You need to determine whether the data provided by the statements are sufficient to the answer the Question from the four Answer choices. Choose the correct answer for each Question based upon the statement data and then darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Choose – 1: If the Question can be answered by one of the statements (A) or (B) ALONE but not by the other statement. Choose – 2: If the Question can be answered by EITHER Statement alone. Choose – 3: If the Question can be answered by using both the statements TOGETHER, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone. Choose – 4: If the question CANNOT BE answered even by using both statements together. Q44 A square is inscribed in a circle. What is the difference between the areas of the circle and that of the square? (A) The diameter of the circle is 25 √ 2cm (B) The side of the square is 25 cm (1) (A) or (B) alone, but not by the other statement (2) Either statements (3) Both statements together (4) Cannot be answered Q45 What are the values of m and n? (A) n is an even integer, m is an odd integer, and m>n (B) mn =30. (1) (A) or (B) alone, but not by other statement (2) Either statements (3) Both statements together (4) Cannot be answered Q46 Two friends, Ram and Rahim, bought mangoes from a wholesale dealer. How many mangoes did they buy? (A) Ram bought one half the number of mangoes that Rahim bought. (B) The wholesale dealer had a stock of 500 mangoes. (1) (A) or (B) alone, but not by other statement (2) Either statements (3) Both statements together (4) Cannot be answered Q47 What is the value of X? (A) X and Y are unequal even integers, less than 10, and X/Y is an odd integer. (B) X and Y are even integers, each less than 10, and X Y=12. (1) (A) or (B) alone, but not by other statement (2) Either statements (3) Both statements together (4) Cannot be answered Q48 Is Country A’s GDP higher than country C’s GDP? (A) GDPs of the countries A and C have grown over the past five years at compounded annual rate of 5% and 6% respectively (B) Five Years ago, GDP of Country A was higher than that of Country C (1) (A) or (B) alone, but not by other statement (2) Either statements (3) Both statements together (4) Cannot be answered Directions for Questions 49 – 50: For each of the questions, select the best/correct from the four answer choices given numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4), then darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Q49 If n is a positive integer less than 200 and 14n/60 is an integer, then n has how many different positive prime factors? (1) Two (2) Three (3) Five (4) Six Q50 In the figure above, if PQRS is a parallelogram, then y º - x º = (1) 30 (2) 35 (3) 40 (4) 90

Section IV
ANALYTICAL REASONING SKILLS

No. of Questions 17 (Q. 51 – 67) Time: 17 Minutes

Questions 51 – 54 are based on the following; choose the best answer from the answer choices given for each question and darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. On each weekday evening, Monday through Friday, for one week, a financial consulting firm is offering a class on investments. A pair of exactly two instructors – one experienced and other inexperienced – will be chosen to teach each evening. The available experienced instructors are S, T, and U. The available inexperienced instructors are V, W, X, Y, and Z. Instructors will be assigned to teach classes according to the following conditions: No instructor can be assigned to teach class on two consecutive evenings. S and X, if either assigned to teach, must be assigned as a pair. V must be assigned to teach Wednesday classes. Y cannot be assigned to teach a class on an evening immediately preceding or following on evening when Z is assigned to teach.

Q51 Which of the following can be the pair of instructors assigned to teach Tuesday’s class? (1) S and Z (2) U and X (3) T and Y (4) S and V Q52 If T and Z are assigned to teach on Monday’s Class, which of the following pairs of instructors can be assigned to teach Tuesday’s class? (1) S and X (2) U and Y (3) T and W (4) S and W Q53 If U is assigned to teach exactly one class, which is on Tuesday, which of the following is one of the instructors who must be assigned to teach Thursday’s class? (1) S (2) W (3) Y (4) Z Q54 If exactly two of the inexperienced instructors are assigned to teach classes during the week, which of the following must be true? (1) T is assigned to teach exactly two classes. (2) Y is assigned to teach exactly three classes. (3) X is assigned to teach exactly one class. (4) People know more about the behaviour of other greatly feared animals like big cats, crocodiles, elephants, than they do about the behaviour of bats. Questions 55 – 59 Below you will find a set of statements followed by 3 or 4 figures, numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). Each figure is drawn as three overlapping circles (Venn diagram) describing the probable relationship among three class (set) of things, objects, groups, persons, etc., indicated by CAPITALIZED initials shown in the parenthesis in the statement(s). Venn diagrams (or set of diagrams) here are the diagrammatic representation of sets or set operations. You will also find here the symbols/expressions/figures denoting the basic (i.e. standard) operations of sets such as union, intersection, and compliments of a set. Union (or join) of two or more sets means that it contains all the elements (or members) of the sets (say A and B) avoiding duplication and is denoted as A È B i.e., “A union B”. The second basic operation i.e., intersection (or meet) of two or more sets means all the elements/members that belong to (i.e., common) both/ all the sets, for instance, A Ç B is read as “A intersection B”. The compliment of a set denotes (Ae) those elements/members which do not belong to set A. In the figure, the un-shaded part means that the class or sub- class or sub-set is empty or there is no member/element in that class or sub-class or sub-set, i.e., a null-set, i.e., set A = {O}. In particular, the following Venn diagrams and/or expressions illustrate the probable relationship between any two sets or class: Indicates there is no A which is B, or there is no member which belongs to both sets A and B; it also indicates the set B is an empty set or null set {o} or A È B = A – B or A Ç B = {o} a null set. Indicates there is no common member between the sets A and B or A Ç B = {o} and empty set. Indicates the sub-set (a) represents some A is not B, i.e., A Ç Bc ; the sub-set (b) means that some A is B and vice versa, i.e., A Ç B ≠ {o}; and the sub-set (c) means that some B is not A or A c Ç B (or B Ç A c ). Directions for Questions 55 – 56:. For each set of statements 3 or 4 figures (Venn diagrams or expressions) using set symbols (as stated above) numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) are given. Choose the diagram/set expression that describes the probable relationship among the class of objects, things, etc., (shown in a capitalized alphabet in parenthesis) as stated in the statement, and then darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Q55 All explosives (E) are inflammable things (F). No inflammable thing is safe (S). Therefore no safe thing is explosive. (1) (2) (3) E Ç F È S (4) None of these Q56 All bankrupt companies (B) are companies unable to pay interest on their debt (D). The LB is a company (L) unable to pay its interests on its debts. Therefore, LB is a bankrupt company. (1) . (2) (3) B Ç D È L (4) None of these Questions 57 – 59 are based on the following Passage: Seven airline flights – 101, 102, 103, 104, 105, 106 and 107 – are scheduled for departure, one at a time on the hour, from 9:00 AM. until 3:00 PM. The schedule must conform to the following requirements: Flight 101 must depart at 9:00 AM Flight 105 must depart later than Flight 103 and also later than Flight 102 Flights 104, 106 and 107 must depart on consecutive hours in that order. Q57 If Flights 103 and 104 are scheduled to depart at 11:00 AM and 12:00 noon, respectively, Flight 102 must be scheduled to depart at (1) 9:00 AM (2) 10:00 AM (3) 1:00 PM (4) 2:00 PM Q58 If Flight 106 is scheduled to depart at 2:00 PM, Flight 105 must be scheduled to depart at (1) 10:00 AM (2) 11:00 AM (3) 12:00 Noon (4) 1:00 PM Q59 What is the latest hour at which Flight 102 can be scheduled to depart? (1) 10:00 AM (2) 11:00 AM (3) 12:00 Noon (4) 1:00 PM Directions for Questions 60 – 66: These questions are based on a proposition or a sentence or a passage. Each proposition/sentence/passage represents an argument, which consists of several parts such as an assumption, a conclusion, an inference, or a premise etc., These terms are defined as follows: Argument: an argument in any group of propositions of which one is claimed to follow from others, which are regarded as providing support or grounds for the truth of that one. Assumption: an assumption is an unstated and/or implied premise(s) that support(s) the conclusion. Conclusion: the conclusion of an argument is the proposition that is affirmed on the basis of other propositions of the argument. These other propositions which are affirmed (or assumed) as providing support or reasons for accepting the conclusion, are premises of that argument. Conclusion and inference are often used synonymously in an argument. In an argument passage, there could be one or more minor conclusion(s) which serve(s) as the premise(s) for the major or main conclusion of the argument passage. Premise: a premise is a stated reason or a piece of evidence, facts, examples, observations, that support(s) the conclusion or inference. In this part, an argument passage, an excerpt, or a passage, is followed by questions which are statements either concerned with or related to the passage or reproduced from the argument passage. These questions are concerned with the parts of an argument as defined above i.e., an assumption, a conclusion, an inference, a premise etc., Identify if the statement(s) given in the question is an assumption, or conclusion/an inference, a premise or none of these (i.e., not an argument). Choose the following number as indicated below: Choose – 1: if the statement is an assumption Choose – 2: if the statement is a conclusion/an inference Choose – 3: if he statement is a premise Choose – 4: if the statement is not an argument Darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Questions 60 – 66 are based on the following passage: Passage: It’s no news that mobile phone use raises the risks of brain cancer and impotency. Now mouth cancer to the list. A team of international researchers has carried out a study and found that too much use of cell phones increases the chance of developing malignant mouth tumour, British newspaper and Daily Mail report today (Dec’15, ’07.) In fact, the researchers came to the conclusion after analyzing the effect of mobile phone use on a group of people in Israel. The team compared the life styles of 402 people with benign mouth tumours and 56 having malignant ones with a control group of 1,266 people. Those who used mobiles the most, were more likely than normal to develop parotid gland tumour. In fact, five years of frequent use increased the chances of developing tumour by around 50 percent compared with people who had never used one, the researchers found. Long users of mobiles tended to develop tumours on the same side of the head as the phone was normally held. People who used mobile phones in rural areas, where the phone has to work harder to make contact with the nearest base station, were found to be at greater risk. (Source: reproduced in a national daily, Dec, 2007) Q60 It’s no news that mobile phone use raises the risk of brain cancer and impotency. (1) an assumption (2) a conclusion (3) a premise (4) not an argument Q61 In fact, the researchers came to the conclusion after analyzing the effects of mobile phone use on a group of people in Israel. (1) an assumption (2) a conclusion (3) a premise (4) not an argument Q62 The team compared the life styles of 402 people with benign mouth tumours and 56 having malignant ones with a control group of 1,266 people. (1) an assumption (2) a conclusion (3) a premise (4) not an argument Q63 Those who used mobiles the most were more likely than normal to develop parotid gland tumour. (1) an assumption (2) a conclusion (3) a premise (4) not an argument Q64 The electronic micro-waves generated by mobile phones when on use close to the ear of user sent vibrations to the parotid gland are primary sources of cancer-causing effect. (1) an assumption (2) a conclusion (3) a premise (4) not an argument Q65 Long term users of mobiles tended to develop tumours on the same side of the head as the phone was normally held. (1) an assumption (2) a conclusion (3) a premise (4) not an argument Q66 People who used mobile phones in rural areas, where phone has to work harder to make contact with the nearest base station, were found to be at greater risk. (1) an assumption (2) a conclusion (3) a premise (4) not an argument Q67 Large national budget deficits do not cause large trade deficits. If they did, countries with large budget deficits would also have the largest trade deficits. In fact, when deficit figures are adjusted so that different countries are reliably comparable to each other, there is no such correlation. If the statements above are all true, which of the following can properly be inferred on the basis of them? (1) Reducing a country’s national budget deficit will not necessarily result in a lowering of any trade deficit that country may have. (2) Countries with largest trade deficits never have similarly large national budget deficit. (3) Reliable comparisons of deficit figures of one country with those of another are impossible. (4) Countries with large national budget deficits tend to restrict foreign trade.

Section V
Quantitative Skills

No. of Questions 17 (Questions 68 – 84) Time: 17 Minutes

Directions for Questions 68 – 72: Each of the questions (68 – 72) has four answer choices. For each of the questions, select the best of the answer choices given, then darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet.

Q68 If n is a positive integer less than 200 and 14n/60 is an integer, then n has how many different positive prime factors? (1) Two (2) Three (3) Five (4) Six Q69 If the circle above has center O and circumference 18p, then the perimeter of the sector KLMO is (1) (2) (3) (4) Q70 If 4 is one solution of the equation, x 2 + 3x + k = 0, where k is a constant, what is the other solution? (1) -7 (2) -3 (3) 1 (4) 6 Q71 A rectangular box is 10 units wide, 10 units long, 5 units high. What is the greatest possible (straight line) distance, in the same units, between any two points on the box? (1) 20 (2) 10√ 3 (3) 15 (4) 10 √ 2 Q72 In the figure above, the point on segment PQ that is twice as far as from P as from Q is (1) (1.5, 0.5) (2) (1,0) (3) (2, -1) (4) (2,1) Directions for Questions 73 – 77: In each of the problems, a question is followed by two statements marked (A) and (B) containing certain data pertaining to the problem. You need to determine whether the data provided by the statements (A) and (B) are sufficient to answer the question from the four answer choices numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the correct answer for each question based upon the statement data and then darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Choose – 1 – If the question can be answered by (A) ALONE but NOT by (B) alone. Choose – 2 – If the question can be answered by (B) ALONE but NOT by (A) alone. Choose – 3 – If the question can be answered by using both the statements TOGETHER but cannot be answered by using either statement alone. Choose – 4 – If the question CANNOT BE answered even by using both statements together. Q73 If m and n are consecutive positive integers, is m greater than ? (A) m – 1 and n + 1 are consecutive positive integers. (B) m is an even integer (1) (A) alone (2) (B) alone (3) Both statements together (4) Cannot be answered Q74 How many integers n are there such that r <> (A) s – r = 5 (B) r and s are not integers (1) (A) alone (2) (B) alone (3) Both statements together (4) Cannot be answered Q75 If K and L are each circular regions, what is the radius of the larger of these regions? (A) The area of K plus the area of L is equal to 90 TT (B) The larger circular region has a radius that is twice the radius of smaller circular region (1) (A) alone (2) (B) alone (3) Both statements together (4) Cannot be answered Q76 An empty rectangular swimming pool has uniform depth. How long will it take to fill the pool with water? (A) Water will be pumped in at the rate of 240 gallons per hour (1 cubic foot = 7.5 gallons) (B) The pool is 60 feet long and 25 feet wide (1) (A) alone (2) (B) alone (3) Both statements together (4) Cannot be answered Q77 If 2x (5n) = t, what is the value of t? (A) X = n + 3 (B) 2x = 32 (1) (A) alone (2) (B) alone (3) Both statements together (4) Cannot be answered Directions for Questions 78 – 84: Choose the correct answer from the answer choices and then darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Q78 If (2 x ) (2 y ) = 8 and (9 x ) (3 y ) = 81, then (x,y) = (A) X = n + 3 (B) 2x = 32 (1) (1,3) (2) (2,2) (3) (1,1) (4) (1,2) Q79 If x, y, and z are positive integers such that x is a factor of y, and x is a multiple of z, which of the following is not necessarily an integer? (1) (2) (3) (4) Q80 If a sales person sold her goods for Rs. 75.00 at a percent equal to its cost price, then cost price was (in Rs)? (1) 40 (2) 42 (3) 25 (4) 50 Q81 The cost of manufacturing a popular model of a car is made up of three items: cost of raw materials, labour and overheads – In a year the cost of three items were in the ration of 4: 3: 2. Next year the cost of the raw materials rose by 10%, labour cost increased by 8% but overheads reduced by 5 %. The % increase in the price of the car is (1) 7.67% (2) 6% (3) 0.54% (4) 9.54% Q82 The product of two numbers is 24. If the sum of the squares of two numbers be added to the sum of the numbers, the result is 62. The smaller number of the two is (1) 3 (2) – 8 (3) 3 (4) None of these Q83 What is the value of x that would satisfy x y = y x and x 2 = y 3, where x, y >0, - 1 and y ≠1 (1) (2) (3) (4) Q84 The first term of an Arithmetic Progression (A. P) is 5 and the fourth term is 17, then the tenth term is (1) 22 (2) 37 (3) 41 (4) 45

Section VI
Verbal Skills

No. of Questions 16 (Questions 85 – 100) Time: 19 Minutes

Directions for Questions 85 – 88: Each question is based on the passage below. After reading the passage, choose the best answer to each question from the answer choices given below and darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Base your answer on information that is either stated or implied in the passage. Passage: According to the study by the Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations (ICRIER), consumers can’t get enough for big retail chains. ICRIER was appointed by the Government to study the impact of organized retail on small traders. While the study indicates that organized retail will impact small traders adversely and has indeed already hit sales and profits, the consumer side of the findings indicates that more Indians – as many as 53 percent – want to see western-style supermarkets across the country. Any fallout from the introduction of these chains is also likely to be short – term. Small retailers and kirana stores are astute businessmen. None of them will shut down. They have survived the onslaught of time and will continue to thrive because of the sheer convenience they provide. They have a special personal rapport with their customers and offer benefits like credit facilities, door delivery and even phone services. India is a huge market. With minor structural benefits, small retailers will be able to coexist with the big ones. If anything will change, it will only be for better. Organized retailers will push the mom and pop stores and small retailers up the value chain to innovate in their offerings. In spite of organized retail growing swiftly in recent years, the unorganized sector accounts for nearly 97 percent of he total retail in India. According to the estimates, the share of organized retail in the $ 300 billion spent on food and consumer items this year (2007) in India, would be just $ 12 billion. Growth of organized retail will benefit every one across the value chain. It will create huge number of jobs in the country. Farmers will benefit as they will have consistent incomes and would also be able to hedge themselves against crop failure. Consumers will directly profit with retailers passing on cost benefits, accrued through high value procurements, to them. (Source: an article published in a national daily, December 2007) Questions 85 – 88 refer to the above passage

Q85 According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred as the main thrust of the authors argument? I. The organized retail stores would in the long run largely adversely affect large sections of small retail stores. II. The organized retail stores would help develop a broad based domestic economy, affordable food prices, farm sector development and intensive growth; in short, the organized retail stores would improve a wide sections of stakeholders concerned in the society - customers, farmers and employment opportunities. III. The share of organized retail would be insignificant only 4% (approx) of the amount spent on food and consumer products. (1)I only (2) II only (3) III only (4) II and III only Q86 Which of the following statement(s), if true, will strengthen the argument(s) in favour of the organized retail stores? I. The organized retail stores offer small regional brands more shelf – space, better displays and ambience compared to kirana stores. II. Regional brands are benefited by pushing their brands through the organized retail stores with bargains and value deals that are often better and bigger players. III. The organized retail stores controlled and invested by big business – Indian and foreign – for example, Reliance, Wall Mart and others, offer variety of products at affordable price-tag and better quality. (1)I and II only (2)II and III only (3)I and III only (4)I, II, III Q87 Which of the following statement(s), if true, WEAKENS the arguments in favour of the organized retail stores presented in the passage? I. The organized retail stores with deep pockets can withstand losses for a short-term in order to gain and control the market. II. In absence of social security net to help small traders and workers who could lose jobs when and if that happens to tide over crises, a public policy that puts a large number of people who are likely to be the affected by the organized retail stores can have disastrous social and economic implications in the long run. III. The organized retail stores will target rich and winnable as customers in urban centres with a large disposable income. (1)I only (2)II only (3)III only (4)II and III only Q88 Which of the following statement(s), according to the passage, is/are true according to author? I. Across the value chain in retail markets, growth of organized retail will benefit almost all stakeholders. II. The fear among small retailers and traders that they stand to lose their livelihood if mega retail chains enter the market in a big way is more or less unreal – according to the ICRIER survey. III. The foreign retail chain like Wall Mart without any protective clause in an open and free market economy as in India today will kill indigenous entrepreneurship. IV. Organized retailers will push the mom and pop stores and small retailers up in the value chain which they couldn’t sustain in the long run. Directions for Questions 89 – 92: For each of these questions, five sentences lettered A to E are given. These sentences, if arranged in a logical sequence, will form a coherent and meaningful paragraph. Choose the most logical order from among the given choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) to construct a coherent paragraph, then darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Q89 (A) India may be one of the world’s two fastest growing economics, its future prospects may be making both Dalal Street and Wall Street droll. (B) India is, at the same time, a country which produces millions of employment seekers every year but precious little employment. (C) Jobs in the once bloated public sectors are necessarily decreasing and restrictive labour laws, in part, ensure that the private organized sector hasn’t made good the defecit. (D) And the situation is getting worse with every passing year. (E) The cumulative result is an unemployment situation that is a social time bomb, with scarcity driven parochialism providing the fuse. (1) ABDCE (2) ABECD (3) BACDE (4) ABCDE Q90 (A) The developed world has been forced to give in the demand to end agricultural export subsidies by 2013. (B) The deep divisions that were evident in the negotiations leading up to and during the ministerial meetings are sufficient to show that this success is by no means a foregone conclusion. (C) And, more important for a development round of trade negotiations, the little progress that has been achieved is in the direction of opening markets for the benefit of more vulnerable economies. (D) The WTO’s Hong Kong ministerial has done just about enough to keep alive the prospects of a successful completion of the Doha Development Round. (E) But the self-imposed new deadlines for finalizations of modalities for negotiations suggest a desire on the part of all concerned to make the round work. (1) DAEBC (2) DCEAB (3) ADCBE (4) DBECA Q91 (A) When faced with a threatening context, the psychological stress and anxiety may induce a rigid cognitive response on the part of individuals. (B) In many cases, strategic decision making occurs in the context of a threatening situation – the organization must deal with poor financial performance, deteriorating competitive position and/on or dramatic shift in customer requirements. (C) Over confidence bias becomes a factor in many situations as well. (D) Consequently, we may not recognize when we need to solicit input and advice from others, or we downplay the doubts that others display regarding our judgments and decisions. (E) Most of us tend to overestimate our own capabilities. (1) CEDBA (2) EBDAC (3) ADBEC (4) BCDEA Q92 (A) The outside region of sun will expand approximately 35 million miles, about the distance to Mercury, which is the closest planet to the sun. (B) By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what the rest of the sun’s life will be like. (C) The sun will be red than be a red gaint star; temperatures on the Earth will become too hot for life to exist. (D) The surface temperature will fall and the higher temperature of the centre will increase the rate of thermonuclear reactions. (E) About 5 billion years from now, the core of the sun will shrink and become hotter. (1) CADEB (2) BEDAC (3) CEBDA (4) ADBEC Directions for Questions 93 – 94 In each question, a word in CAPITAL LETTERS is followed by four different sentences numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). In each of these sentences the word is used in four different ways of which only one usage is incorrect or inappropriate. Choose the sentence in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT OR INAPPROPRIATE and then darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Q93 HELP: (1) Do you really expect me to help you out with cash. (2) Potter may help himself with his favorite cold drinks from the fridge. (3) This syrup will help your cough and cold. (4) I can’t help the colour of my skin. Q94 PAPER (1) Professor Habib will read a paper in the seminar on criminalization of politics in contemporary India. (2) So far I have been able to paper over the disagreements among my brothers. (3) Your suggestions look great on the paper, but are absolutely impractical. (4) Do people are concerned how many trees are killed to make a truck load of paper? Directions for Questions 95 – 96: In each question, a short passage is followed by four summaries of the passage numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the summary that best captures the essence of the text-passage, then darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Q95 Passage: Some decisions will be fairly obvious – “no brainers”. Your bank account is low, but you have a two-week vacation coming up and you want to get away to some place warm to relax with your family. Will you accept your in-laws’ offer of free use of their Kovalam beachfront resort? Sure you like your employer and feel ready to move forward in your career. Will you step in for your boss for three weeks while she attends a professional development course? Of course. Summaries: (1) Some decisions are no-brainers. You need not think them. Examples are beachfront resorts offers from in-laws and job offers from bosses when your bank account is low or boss is away. (2) Accepting an offer from in-laws when you are short of funds and want a holiday is no-brainer. Another no-brainer is taking the boss’s job when she is away. (3) Easy decisions are called “no-brainers” because they do not require any cerebral activity. Examples such as accepting free holiday accommodation abound in our lives. (4) Some decisions are obvious under certain circumstances. You may, for example, readily accept a relative’s offer of free holiday accommodation. Or step in for your boss when she is away. Q96 Passage: Physically, inertia is a feeling that just can’t move; mentally, it is a sluggish mind. Even if you try to be sensitive, if your mind is sluggish, you just don’t feel anything intensely. You may even see a tragedy enacted in front of your eyes and not be able to respond meaningfully. You may see one person exploiting another, one group persecuting another, and not able to get angry. Your energy is frozen. You are not deliberately refusing to act; you just don’t have the capacity. Summaries: (1) Physical inertia stops your body from moving; mental inertia freezes your energy, and stops your mind from responding meaningfully to events, even tragedies, in front of you. (2) Inertia is of two types – physical and mental. Physical inertia restricts bodily movements. Mental inertia prevents mental response to events enacted in front of your eyes. (3) Inertia makes your body and mind sluggish. They become insensitives to tragedies, exploitations, and persecution because it freezes your energy and decapacitates it. (4) When you have inertia you don’t act although you see one person exploiting another or one group persecuting another. You don’t get angry because you are incapable. Directions for Questions 97 – 100: Each of the question below consists of a word in CAPITAL LETTERS, followed by four words or phrases numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). Choose the numbered word or phrase that is nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the word in capital letters, then darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet. Since some of the questions require you to distinguish fine shades of meaning, be sure to consider all the choices before deciding which one is best. 97 OBDURATE: : (1) similar (2) uncommunicative (3) transitory (4) complacent 98 EFFRONTERY: : (1) stupidity (2) deference (3) simplicity (4) deceitfulness 99 AVER: : (1) deny (2) condemn unjustly (3) resent (4)resign indigent 100 PITH: : (1) routine treatment (2) rigid formulation (3) superficial element (4) insufficient attention If you score 65 or more in these sample Questions following instructions within the time allotted in each section separately without consulting the key and/on any other help, you will do well in the actual test.

Answer Key to Sample Test Questions

Section – I Verbal Skills Q.NO KEY 1 2 2 1 3 4 4 4 5 4 6 3 7 3 8 4 9 2 10 1 11 1 12 3 13 3 14 1 15 3 16 1 Section – II Analytical Reasoning Q.NO KEY 17 4 18 1 19 4 20 4 21 2 22 1 23 1 24 1 25 1 26 4 27 4 28 4 29 4 30 1 31 2 32 4 33 4 Section – III Quantitative Skills Q.NO KEY 34 2 35 3 36 1 37 4 38 4 39 3 40 2 41 4 42 1 43 3 44 2 45 3 46 4 47 2 48 4 49 3 50 1

Section – IV Analytical Reasoning Skills Q.NO KEY 51 3 52 1 53 1 54 2 55 1 56 4 57 2 58 3 59 3 60 4 61 4 62 3 63 2 64 1 65 2 66 2 67 1 Section – V Quantitative Skills Q.NO KEY 68 3 69 3 70 1 71 3 72 4 73 1 74 3 75 3 76 4 77 3 78 4 79 2 80 4 81 2 82 2 83 4 84 3 Section – VI Verbal Skills Q.NO KEY 85 2 86 1 87 2 88 1 89 1 90 4 91 1 92 2 93 2 94 3 95 4 96 1 97 4 98 2 99 1 100 3